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Boaz Baptist Chronicles

A Few Questions about Water Baptism for My Hyper-dispensational Friends

Posted on March 31, 2011 at 2:53 PM



Although the Apostle Paul never included water baptism in the plan of salvation (I Corinthians 1:17), he practiced it—thus, rendering it a picture of the death, burial and resurrection that every new believer experiences in Christ.  It is also an ordinance, instituted by our Lord (Matthew 28:18 ), that every New Testament believer is compelled to obey.

 

First of all, even though the Apostle Paul didn’t associate water baptism with the Gospel (salvation), he, none-the-less, made it a point to baptize believers he led to Christ.

 

“I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius; Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name. And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.”  (I Corinthians 1:14-16)

 

Read this, again.  Even though, in context, Paul was showing his objection to baptizing these believers, what was the objection? Verse fifteen answers it for us. “Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.” But, what I’m hoping you see, here, is that even though Paul didn't want people to think he was baptizing in his own name, he still baptized at least four converts. “I baptized…Crispus and Gaius…And I baptized also the household of Stephanas….”

 

If baptism is wrong for the church age, as you “Hypers” say, why did Paul baptize in water? If baptism is wrong for a believer to practice, why are there no verses, in Scripture, that record Paul repenting of that action/sin? And, why didn’t he mention it to the Corinthian church as being bad or unnecessary doctrine to continue?

 

Remembering that the book of Acts is a transitional book, and understanding that every Jew who believed on Christ [and, were in Christ before Paul (Romans 16:7)] had to be baptized in water to be saved (Acts 2:38 ) [which explains why Paul mentions his baptism in Acts 22:16], once that formula was replaced with Acts 16:31 [which included the Ethiopian Eunuch (Acts 8 )—a JEWISH convert and Cornelius (Acts 10)—a Gentile, who were both baptized in water], why didn’t Paul correct Peter on this doctrine. He sure corrected him on his hypocrisy on another matter. (Galatians 2:11-14) Why not on this, too?

 

Since, with the above knowledge, Paul—who was given "the mystery of the one body," never repented of baptizing (believers) in water, should we?

 

Pastor Bob

 


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